Free CompTIA SK0-005 Test Practice Test Questions Exam Dumps
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NEW QUESTION # 97
A technician is setting up a repurposed server. The minimum requirements are 2TB while ensuring the highest performance and providing support for one drive failure. The technician has the following six drives available:
* 500GB, 10,000rpm
* 600GB, 10,000rpm
* 500GB, 7,200rpm
* 500GB, 10,000rpm
* 600GB, 15,000rpm
* 600GB, 10,000rpm
Which of the following drive selections should the technician utilize to best accomplish this goal?
- A. 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6
- B. 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6
- C. 1, 2, 4, and 6
- D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 6
Answer: A
Explanation:
The goal is to achieve 2TB total storage, high performance, and support for one drive failure. Using RAID 5 or RAID 10 can provide redundancy while maximizing performance.
* 1, 2, 4, 5, and 6 (Answer C): This selection includes the highest-capacity and highest-performance drives (600GB and 500GB at high RPM speeds). Using these drives will provide the necessary capacity (500GB + 600GB + 500GB + 600GB + 600GB = 2.8TB) and performance with one drive redundancy (RAID 5 or 10).
* Other options (A, B, D): These combinations either lack the necessary capacity or mix slower drives (7,200rpm), reducing overall performance.
CompTIA Server+ Reference:This topic is covered under SK0-005 Objective 1.5: Explain storage technologies and RAID configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following BEST describes overprovisioning in a virtual server environment?
- A. Installing more physical hardware than is necessary to run the virtual environment to allow for future expansion
- B. Ensuring there are enough physical resources to sustain the complete virtual environment in the event of a host failure
- C. Committing more virtual resources to virtual machines than there are physical resources present
- D. Allowing a virtual machine to utilize more resources than are allocated to it based on the server load
Answer: C
Explanation:
This is the best definition of overprovisioning in a virtual server environment because it means allocating more CPU, memory, disk, or network resources to the virtual machines than what is actually available on the physical host. This can lead to performance issues and resource contention. References: https://www.hpe.com
/us/en/insights/articles/10-virtualization-mistakes-everyone-makes-1808.html
NEW QUESTION # 99
A staff member who a monitoring a data center reports one rack is experiencing higher temperatures than the racks next to it, despite the hardware in each rack being the same. Which of the following actions would MOST likely remediate the heal issue?
- A. installing an additional POU and spreading out the power cables
- B. Installing servers on the shelves instead of sliding rails
- C. installing front bezels on all the server's m the rack
- D. Installing blanking panels in all the empty rack spaces
Answer: D
Explanation:
Blanking panels are metal or plastic plates that are installed in the empty spaces of a rack to prevent hot air from recirculating back to the front of the rack. This can improve the airflow and cooling efficiency of the rack and reduce the heat generated by the servers. Verified Reference: [Blanking panel], [Rack cooling]
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following, if properly configured, would prevent a user from installing an OS on a server? (Select TWO).
- A. Root password
- B. Bootloader password
- C. BIOS/UEFI password
- D. Administrator password
- E. SELInux
- F. Group Policy Object
Answer: E
NEW QUESTION # 101
A server administrator is configuring a new server that will hold large amounts of information. The server will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. Which of the following server roles will the administrator MOST likely need to install?
- A. Print
- B. Messaging
- C. Application
- D. Database
Answer: D
Explanation:
Few people are expected to use the database at the same time and users don't need to customize the design of the database.
Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/ways-to-share-an-access-desktop-database-03822632- da43-4d8f-ba2a-68da245a0446 The server role that the administrator will most likely need to install for a server that will hold large amounts of information and will need to be accessed by multiple users at the same time is database. A database is a collection of structured data that can be stored, queried, manipulated, and analyzed using various methods and tools. A database server is a server that hosts one or more databases and provides access to them over a network. A database server can handle large amounts of information and support concurrent requests from multiple users or applications.
NEW QUESTION # 102
A server administrator deployed a new product that uses a non-standard port for web access on port 8443. However, users are unable to access the new application. The server administrator checks firewall rules and determines 8443 is allowed. Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A. The core switch has a network issue.
- B. Intrusion detection is blocking the port.
- C. The application should be changed to use port 443.
- D. The new application's DNS entry is incorrect.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A DNS entry is a record that maps a domain name to an IP address. If the DNS entry for the new application is incorrect, users will not be able to resolve the domain name to the correct IP address and port number. This will prevent them from accessing the application, even if the firewall rules allow port 8443. To fix this issue, the server administrator should verify and update the DNS entry for the new application.
NEW QUESTION # 103
A server administrator is installing a new server that uses 40G0 network connectivity. The administrator needs to find the proper cables to connect the server to the switch. Which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
- A. GBIC
- B. SFP+
- C. QSFP+
- D. SFP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of connector that should be used to connect a server to a switch that uses 40G network connectivity.
QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a compact, hot-pluggable transceiver module that supports data rates up to 40 Gbps.
QSFP+ modules can be used for various network protocols and media types, such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, InfiniBand, or optical fiber.
QSFP+ modules have a 38-pin edge connector and can be inserted into a QSFP+ port on a switch or a server. SFP+ (Small Form-factor Pluggable Plus) is a type of connector that supports data rates up to 10 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps. SFP+ modules have a 20-pin edge connector and can be inserted into an SFP+ port on a switch or a server. GBIC (Gigabit Interface Converter) is an older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps.
GBIC modules have an SC duplex connector and can be inserted into a GBIC port on a switch or a server.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is another older type of connector that supports data rates up to 1 Gbps or 4 Gbps, but not 40 Gbps.
SFP modules have an LC duplex connector and can be inserted into an SFP port on a switch or a server.
References: https://www.howtogeek.com/190014/virtualization-basics-understanding-techniques-and-fundamentals/
https://www.howtogeek.com/428483/what-is-end-to-end-encryption-and-why- does-it-matter/
https://www.howtogeek.com/443611/how-to-encrypt-your-macs-system-drive-removable-devices-and-individual-files/
NEW QUESTION # 104
A recent power Outage caused email services to go down. A sever administrator also received alerts from the datacenter's UPS.
After some investigation, the server administrator learned that each POU was rated at a maximum Of 12A.
INSTRUCTIONS
Ensure power redundancy is implemented throughout each rack and UPS alarms are resolved. Ensure the maximum potential PDU consumption does not exceed 80% or 9.6A).
a. PDU selections must be changed using the pencil icon.
b. VM Hosts 1 and 2 and Mail Relay can be moved between racks.
c. Certain devices contain additional details
Answer:
Explanation:
Explanation
Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 105
An administrator is troubleshooting performance issues on a server that was recently upgraded. The administrator met with users/stakeholders and documented recent changes in an effort to determine whether the server is better or worse since the changes. Which of the following would BEST help answer the server performance question9
- A. An application service-level agreement
- B. A server baseline
- C. Server performance thresholds
- D. A hardware compatibility list
Answer: B
Explanation:
A server baseline is a set of metrics that represents the normal performance and behavior of a server under a specific workload and configuration. A server baseline can help answer the server performance question by comparing the current performance with the previous performance before the upgrade. This can help identify any changes or issues that may have affected the server performance. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 4.2)
NEW QUESTION # 106
An administrator is wiring some Cat 5 cable into a serial cable. Which of the following wiring types should the administrator use?
- A. Crossover
- B. Rollover
- C. Straight-through
- D. EIA 568A on both ends
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 107
A server administrator is tasked with upgrading the network on a server to 40Gbps. After installing the card, which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
- A. SFP+
- B. 10 GigE
- C. QSFP+
- D. SFP
Answer: C
Explanation:
QSFP+ (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable Plus): This transceiver type is designed specifically to handle 40Gbps network speeds. QSFP+ connectors are hot-swappable and support various cable types, including fiber optic and copper (DAC).
10GigE: While a valid network technology, 10GigE only supports up to 10Gbps, not the required 40Gbps.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A common transceiver type, but the standard SFP only supports a maximum of 1Gbps.
SFP+ (Enhanced Small Form-factor Pluggable): Supports up to 10Gbps, not sufficient for 40Gbps in this scenario.
References:
CompTIA Server+ Objectives (Exam codes SK0-004 or SK0-005): Search for sections on networking standards and transceiver types.
NEW QUESTION # 108
A server administrator is attempting to restore a file from monthly backups. The administrator mentions to a coworker that the backup media has the longest seek time of any of the restore methods. From which of the following types of media is the administrator MOST likely restoring?
- A. Hard drive
- B. Solid-state drive
- C. Removable drive
- D. Tape drive
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 109
A systems administrator needs to back up changes made to a data store on a daily basis during a short time frame. The administrator wants to maximize RTO when restoring data. Which of the following backup methodologies would best fit this scenario?
- A. Full backups
- B. Incremental backups
- C. Off-site backups
- D. Differential backups
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
An incremental backup is a backup method that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. An incremental backup can save disk space and time, as it only copies the new or modified data. An incremental backup can also improve the RTO (Recovery Time Objective), which is the maximum acceptable time to restore data after a disaster. This is because an incremental backup can restore data faster than a full or a differential backup, as it only needs to apply the latest changes to the previous backup1.
NEW QUESTION # 110
A server administrator is currently working on an incident. Which of the following steps should the administrator perform before resolving the issue?
- A. Determine the probable causes.
- B. Inform the impacted users.
- C. Make the changes to the system.
- D. Identify changes to the server.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The step that the server administrator should perform before resolving the issue is to determine the probable causes. This step is part of the troubleshooting process that follows a logical and systematic approach to identify and solve problems with servers and applications. The troubleshooting process consists of several steps, such as:
Identify the problem: Gather information from various sources, such as users, logs, or alerts, to understand the symptoms and scope of the problem.
Establish a theory of probable cause: Analyze the information and formulate one or more possible causes of the problem based on evidence or experience.
Test the theory to determine cause: Perform tests or experiments to verify or eliminate each possible cause until the root cause is found.
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Design and execute a plan to fix the problem using appropriate tools and techniques.
Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures: Confirm that the problem is resolved and that no other issues arise as a result of the solution. Implement preventive measures to avoid recurrence of the problem or improve performance.
Document findings, actions, and outcomes: Record the details of the problem, its cause, its solution, and its outcome for future reference or knowledge sharing. References: [CompTIA Server+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 6.0: Troubleshooting, Objective 6.1: Given a scenario involving server hardware issues (e.g., power supply failure), troubleshoot using appropriate tools.
NEW QUESTION # 111
A server technician notices a server is very low on disk space. Upon inspecting the disk utilization, the technician discovers server logs are taxing up a large amount of space. There is no central log server. Which of the following would help free up disk space?
- A. Log rotation
- B. Log analysis
- C. Log shipping
- D. Log alerting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Log rotation is a process that periodically renames, compresses, and deletes old log files to free up disk space and keep log files manageable. Log rotation can be configured using tools such as logrotate or cron on Linux systems, or using Windows Task Scheduler or PowerShell scripts on Windows systems. Log rotation can also help with log analysis and troubleshooting by making it easier to find relevant information in smaller and more recent log files. References:
https://www.mezmo.com/learn-log-management/what-is-log-rotation-how-does-it-workhttps://docs.microsoft.co
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which of the following BEST describes a warm site?
- A. The site has partial infrastructure and some data.
- B. The site has all infrastructure and some data
- C. The site has all infrastructure and live data.
- D. The site has partially redundant infrastructure and no network connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation:
A warm site is a type of disaster recovery site that has some pre-installed hardware, software, and network connections, but not as much as a hot site. A warm site also has some backup data, but not as current as a hot site. A warm site requires some time and effort to become fully operational in the event of a disaster. A hot site is a disaster recovery site that has all infrastructure and live data, and can take over the primary site's operations immediately. A cold site is a disaster recovery site that has no infrastructure or data, and requires significant time and resources to set up. Reference:
https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/management/disaster-recovery-site/
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/3780/warm-site
NEW QUESTION # 113
A server administrator is installing a new server that uses 40Gb network connectivity. The administrator needs to find the proper cables to connect the server to the switch. Which of the following connectors should the administrator use?
- A. GBIC
- B. SFP+
- C. QSFP+
- D. SFP
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 114
Which of the following backup types resets the archive bit each time it is run?
- A. Synthic full
- B. Snapshot
- C. Incremental
- D. Differential
Answer: C
Explanation:
Incremental backup is a type of backup that only backs up the files that have changed since the last backup, whether it was a full or an incremental backup. Incremental backup resets the archive bit each time it is run, which means it clears the flag that indicates whether or not the file has been backed up. Incremental backup can save time and space compared to full backup, but it requires more time and resources to restore data from multiple backups. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/resources/exam-objectives/comptia-server-sk0-005-exam-objectives (Objective 3.1)
NEW QUESTION # 115
Users have noticed a server is performing below Baseline expectations. While diagnosing me server, an administrator discovers disk drive performance has degraded. The administrator checks the diagnostics on the RAID controller and sees the battery on me controller has gone bad. Which of the following is causing the poor performance on the RAID array?
- A. The controller cannot use all the available channels.
- B. The controller has lost its configuration.
- C. The drive array is corrupt.
- D. The controller has disabled the write cache.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
The write cache is a feature of some RAID controllers that allows them to temporarily store data in a fast memory buffer before writing it to the disk drives. This improves the performance and efficiency of write operations, especially for random and small writes. However, if the battery on the controller goes bad, the controller may disable the write cache to prevent data loss in case of a power failure. This can degrade the disk drive performance significantly, as every write operation will have to wait for the disk drives to complete.
References:
https://www.dell.com/support/kbdoc/en-us/000131486/understanding-raid-controller-battery-learn-cyclehttps://w
NEW QUESTION # 116
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