Actual ASIS-PSP Exam Recently Updated Questions with Free Demo
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ASIS-PSP (Physical Security Professional) exam is a certification program designed to evaluate the knowledge, skills, and abilities of security professionals in the physical security field. Physical Security Professional Exam certification is offered by the American Society for Industrial Security (ASIS), the world's largest organization of security professionals. The ASIS-PSP certification is recognized globally and is considered to be a benchmark of excellence in the security industry.
ASIS-PSP Certification Exam covers a range of topics including risk assessment, physical security assessments, security design and application, emergency management, and investigations. ASIS-PSP exam is computer-based and consists of 125 multiple-choice questions that must be completed in 2.5 hours. The passing score for the exam is 70%.
NEW QUESTION # 112
What is the authorized physical invasion of property or remaining on property after permission has been rescinded?
- A. Prosecution
- B. Trespass
- C. None of the above
- D. Verdict
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following is NOT the advantage of proprietary officers?
- A. Quality of personnel
- B. Prestige
- C. Loyalty
- D. Impartiality
Answer: D
Explanation:
Proprietary security officers are employed directly by the organization they protect, which often leads to:
Higher loyalty to the organization (B),
Stronger identification with company values,
Higher prestige and potential quality of personnel (A, D).
However, this close affiliation can reduce impartiality, especially in situations involving internal investigations or enforcement actions against coworkers or executives.
References:
ASIS PSP Study Guide - Domain 3
POA Manual - Employee Conduct and Security Staff Roles
NEW QUESTION # 114
A cost-effective system integration design MUST balance:
- A. Human resources and hardware utilization
- B. Insurance and operational costs
- C. Fire safety and security objectives
- D. Risk and control assessments
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
A cost-effective system integration design must balance the level of risk with the controls implemented to mitigate that risk. This balance ensures that resources are used efficiently while maintaining acceptable protection levels.
A, B, and C are relevant considerations, but only D represents the fundamental balance in security system design.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Security System Design and Risk-Based Planning
POA Manual - Cost-Effective Security Integration Principles
NEW QUESTION # 115
Theft triangle consists of:
- A. dander, desire, opportunity
- B. motive, condition, opportunity
- C. dishonesty, financial problem, prospect
- D. motive, desire, opportunity
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
The "Theft Triangle" is a concept used in physical security and loss prevention to illustrate the three primary elements that must exist for theft to occur: motive, desire, and opportunity.
Motive: The reason someone considers committing theft (e.g., financial hardship).
Desire: The internal emotional or psychological urge to obtain something.
Opportunity: The circumstances or vulnerabilities that allow the act to occur.
All three must typically be present for theft to happen. This model is used in behavioral risk assessments and insider threat prevention strategies.
References:
ASIS POA Manual - Chapter: Personnel and Insider Threats
PSP Study Guide - Insider Threat Models
NEW QUESTION # 116
____________ includes self-employed individuals and funded business entities and organizations providing security-related services to specific clientele for a fee.
- A. Security firm
- B. Private security
- C. Security function
- D. Public security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Private security refers to individuals or organizations that offer security-related services for compensation.
This includes both self-employed individuals (such as independent security consultants or contractors) and funded business entities (such as security companies or firms) that provide services to private clients for a fee.
These services may include guarding, patrolling, risk assessments, investigations, alarm monitoring, or other protective activities.
References:
ASIS International, Protection of Assets (POA) Manual, Chapter: Introduction to Physical Security ASIS International, Physical Security Principles (PSP) Study Guide, Domain 1: Physical Security Assessment ASIS Glossary of Security Terms: Private security is defined as "security services provided by individuals or organizations to specific clientele for compensation, distinct from public security services provided by government agencies."
NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following is NOT the organizational level of international terrorism?
- A. Group terrorism
- B. Modern terrorism
- C. State terrorism
- D. Individual terrorism
Answer: B
Explanation:
Organizational levels of terrorism are generally classified into:
Individual Terrorism (Lone-wolf actors)
Group Terrorism (Non-state groups like al-Qaeda, ISIS)
State Terrorism (When a state uses terror tactics on its own or others' populations) Modern terrorism refers more to the contemporary methods, tools, and global nature of terrorism-not a level of organization. Hence, it's not considered an "organizational level." References:
ASIS International, POA Manual, Chapter: Terrorism and Threat Assessment ASIS PSP Study Guide, Domain 1
U.S. Department of State & Global Terrorism Database
NEW QUESTION # 118
Which of the following types of alarm transmission systems is designed to reduce leased telephone line charges while providing a higher degree of security?
- A. Cellular
- B. Circuit loop
- C. Multiplex
- D. Dial-up
Answer: C
Explanation:
Multiplex systems allow multiple alarm signals to be transmitted over a single communication line. This significantly reduces the cost of leasing multiple phone lines while enhancing efficiency and providing a high level of security by encoding and validating data streams.
A (Circuit loop) is an older method using dedicated circuits.
C (Cellular) is wireless but may not always offer secure or low-cost options.
D (Dial-up) is cost-effective but offers limited security and speed.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Alarm System Technologies
POA Manual - Alarm Communication Systems
NEW QUESTION # 119
In ___________, air has been reduced or fuel is dwindling to the point where there is no visible flame, just an entire area filled with tremendous heat.
- A. Smoldering burning
- B. Ignition stage
- C. Last stage
- D. Incipient stage
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 120
Which alarm warn of a process reaching a dangerous temperature, of the presence of toxic fumes, or that a machine is running too fast?
- A. Burglar alarm
- B. Protection alarm
- C. Intrusion alarms
- D. Special-use alarm
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 121
Which one of the following options should be considered with respect to the issuance of weapons?
- A. Public perception
- B. Record of shift absences
- C. Conditions when equipment may be utilized
- D. Physical fitness of the security officer
Answer: C
Explanation:
When issuing weapons to security personnel, policies must clearly define the conditions under which the equipment may be used. This ensures legal compliance, accountability, and safety. Proper use-of-force guidelines are critical in managing liability and operational control.
A (Public perception) is important but secondary.
B and C may be relevant to personnel qualification but not to issuance policies themselves.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Use of Force and Weapons Policy
POA Manual - Security Officer Equipment and Operational Protocols
NEW QUESTION # 122
What can be used as servers and do not require special installation?
- A. Workstations
- B. Minicomputers
- C. Supercomputers
- D. None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Workstations can serve as basic servers in small networks. While they are typically used for individual tasks, they can be configured to act as servers for file sharing, printing, or hosting lightweight applications without needing specialized installation or infrastructure.
Minicomputers (B) are outdated mid-range systems.
Supercomputers (C) are specialized, high-cost systems for massive computations, not typical servers.
"None of the above" (D) is incorrect because workstations can indeed be used as servers.
References:
PSP Study Guide - IT Infrastructure and Physical Security
ASIS POA Manual - Computer Systems and Network Configurations
NEW QUESTION # 123
The recommendations of the Task Force on private security include which one of the following?
- A. basic training of a maximum of 32 hours within 2 months of assignment, of which minimum of 16 hours can be supervised on-the-job training.
- B. Neither A nor B
- C. a minimum of eight hours of formal pre-assignment training
- D. Both A & B
Answer: D
Explanation:
The recommendations from the U.S. Department of Justice Task Force on Private Security Training include:
A minimum of 8 hours of formal pre-assignment training (A),
32 hours of basic training within two months of assignment, with at least 16 hours being supervised on-the- job training (B).
These guidelines aim to professionalize private security personnel and improve effectiveness and accountability.
References:
ASIS International - Private Security Training Guidelines
PSP Study Guide - Personnel Selection and Training
NEW QUESTION # 124
Which of eth following is NOT the type of insurance?
- A. Surety Bonds
- B. Fidelity Bonds
- C. Privacy Invasion
- D. 3-D policies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Privacy invasion is a legal or ethical issue, not a type of insurance policy. Common types of insurance relevant to security include:
Fidelity Bonds: Cover losses due to employee dishonesty
Surety Bonds: Provide financial assurance that obligations will be fulfilled
3-D (Dishonesty, Disappearance, and Destruction) Policies: Provide broader coverage for internal and external crimes Privacy-related issues may be addressed under cyber liability or data breach insurance but not as a standalone policy called "Privacy Invasion."
NEW QUESTION # 125
A bidder instruction document includes verification of:
- A. Experience and warranties
- B. Experience and licenses
- C. Licenses and warranties
- D. Licenses and financial statements
Answer: B
Explanation:
A bidder instruction document typically requests verification of a contractor's relevant experience and professional licenses. This ensures the vendor is qualified and legally authorized to perform the work.
A, C, and D include valid components but do not reflect the standard combination used for qualification.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Bidding Documentation
POA Manual - Procurement and Contractor Qualifications
NEW QUESTION # 126
A legal research generally involves locating:
- A. the applicable statute
- B. All of the above
- C. the applicable case law
- D. related articles in professional journals
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 127
A business impact analysis is used to help management and the business continuity planner decide:
- A. Which functions are critical to the continued operation of the organization
- B. The number of hot sites
- C. How to best allocate personnel resources during a disaster
- D. The budget for the program
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
A Business Impact Analysis (BIA) identifies and prioritizes critical business functions that are essential to the survival and continuity of operations. The results of the BIA help guide recovery strategies, resource allocation, and business continuity planning.
A (Budget) and B (Personnel allocation) are determined later, informed by the BIA.
C (Number of hot sites) is a strategic outcome but not the direct purpose of the BIA.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
POA Manual - Business Impact Analysis Principles
NEW QUESTION # 128
What is defines as using the identity information of another person to commit fraud or engage in other unlawful activities?
- A. Identity fraud
- B. Identity theft
- C. Identity Distortion
- D. Identity dissemination
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:
Identity theft is the act of obtaining and using someone else's personal or financial information-such as social security numbers, bank details, or credit card information-without permission, often for committing fraud or other criminal activities.
Identity fraud (A) refers to the actual fraudulent acts committed after the identity is stolen.
Identity dissemination (C) and Identity distortion (D) are not standard legal or cybersecurity terms.
References:
PSP Study Guide - Cybercrime and Data Misuse
ASIS POA Manual - Information Protection and Legal Compliance
NEW QUESTION # 129
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ASIS-PSP Certification Exam consists of 125 multiple choice questions, which test an individual's knowledge and skills across different areas of physical security management. To be eligible for the certification exam, candidates must have at least five years of security and management experience, and a relevant bachelor's degree or higher. Alternatively, candidates without a bachelor's degree may be eligible for certification provided they have a minimum of seven years of security experience.
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